Free CP Exam Practice Questions
Try 10 sample questions covering the most important CP exam content areas. Each includes a detailed explanation of the correct answer.
These questions mirror the style and difficulty of the real NALA Certified Paralegal exam. The actual exam has 120 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 2 hours. Use these to gauge your readiness and identify areas that need more study.
A client calls the law office and asks the paralegal whether they should file a lawsuit against their neighbor for property damage. The paralegal should:
Explanation
Paralegals cannot give legal advice, which includes advising whether to file a lawsuit (A) or assessing the strength of a case (C). Referring to another attorney without the supervising attorney's direction is also inappropriate (D). The correct response is to provide general information and have the client consult with the supervising attorney.
Under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, a defendant who has been formally served with a summons and complaint must file an answer within:
Explanation
Under FRCP Rule 12(a)(1)(A)(i), a defendant must serve an answer within 21 days after being served with the summons and complaint. If the defendant waives formal service under Rule 4(d), the deadline extends to 60 days. The 21-day deadline is one of the most commonly tested procedural rules on the CP exam.
Which of the following contracts must be in writing under the Statute of Frauds?
Explanation
The Statute of Frauds requires contracts for the sale of land to be in writing. Option A involves goods under $500 (UCC threshold), so it does not need to be in writing. Option B can be performed within one year. Option D is a service contract that can be completed within one year. Remember the MYLEGS mnemonic: Marriage, Year (cannot be performed within one year), Land, Executor, Goods ($500+), Suretyship.
Federal diversity jurisdiction under 28 U.S.C. Section 1332 requires:
Explanation
Diversity jurisdiction requires complete diversity (no plaintiff shares citizenship with any defendant) AND an amount in controversy exceeding $75,000. The "complete diversity" rule comes from Strawbridge v. Curtiss. The $75,000 threshold was set by Congress. Partial diversity (C) is insufficient, and the other threshold amounts (A, D) are incorrect.
To establish a claim for negligence, the plaintiff must prove all of the following elements EXCEPT:
Explanation
Negligence requires duty, breach, causation (actual and proximate), and damages. Intent to cause harm is NOT an element of negligence. Intent is an element of intentional torts (battery, assault, etc.). This is a fundamental distinction: negligence involves a failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional harmful conduct.
The Miranda warning must be given to a suspect:
Explanation
Miranda warnings are required before custodial interrogation, meaning when a suspect is in custody (not free to leave) and being questioned by law enforcement. The warnings are not required at arrest if no questioning occurs (A), are not limited to felonies (C), and are not related to the first court appearance (D). This comes from Miranda v. Arizona (1966).
A will that is entirely in the testator's handwriting, signed by the testator, but not witnessed is known as a:
Explanation
A holographic will is entirely in the testator's handwriting, signed by the testator, and does not require witnesses (recognized in about half of U.S. states). A nuncupative will (A) is an oral will. A codicil (C) is an amendment to an existing will. An attested will (D) is a formal will signed before witnesses.
Under a race-notice recording statute, which party has priority?
Explanation
Under a race-notice statute (the most common type), a subsequent purchaser prevails only if they (1) are a bona fide purchaser (for value, without notice), AND (2) record before the prior interest holder. This combines elements of both race (first to record) and notice (without knowledge of prior interest) statutes.
The business judgment rule protects corporate directors from liability when they:
Explanation
The business judgment rule creates a presumption that directors acted on an informed basis, in good faith, and in the honest belief that the action taken was in the best interests of the company. It does not simply protect any decision causing loss (A), does not require following shareholder instructions (C), and does not require legal consultation for every decision (D).
Upon filing a bankruptcy petition, the automatic stay under Section 362 immediately stops all of the following EXCEPT:
Explanation
The automatic stay under Section 362 halts most civil proceedings and collection efforts, including wage garnishments (A), foreclosures (B), and creditor contact (D). However, criminal proceedings against the debtor are explicitly excluded from the automatic stay. The government can continue criminal prosecution regardless of the bankruptcy filing.
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